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I know how my country (Spain) does it. They don’t take direction of the company but part of the profits become public funds since the govt is partially owner.
Wait bailouts aren’t the govt buying debt? I thought the point was for the govt to own part of the bailed company. Wtf.
Is that what it’s supposed to be? I know nothing of this topic.
I know how my country (Spain) does it. They don’t take direction of the company but part of the profits become public funds since the govt is partially owner.
No idea how yours does it.